Re: Semitic rhotic questions
| From: | Muke Tever <hotblack@...> |
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| Date: | Friday, November 7, 2003, 15:23 |
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On Fri, 7 Nov 2003 09:33:49 -0500, Paul Bennett <paul-bennett@...>
wrote:
> On Thu, 06 Nov 2003 18:36:10 +0200, Isaac Penzev <isaacp@...> wrote:
>
>>> 1. Does anyone know with any acceptable degree of
>>> certainty what the actual value of the Biblical Hebrew
>>> rhotic was?
>>
>> It is rather possible that Old Hebrew /r/ was [G] or [R] because it is
>> classified as guttural, and its presence in the stem provokes the same
>> kind of phonetic changes, as, e.g. /X\/ or /?\/.
[snip]
> Anyone else got any information to back up either /4/ or /G/~/R/ for
> ancient Hebrew? Steg? Dan? Anyone?
Etymologically speaking... _Reconstructing Proto-Afroasiatic_ describes
the sound *r as a flap [4], and remaining *r in most of the family (except
Egyptian, where it goes to [n], [?], and [j] depending on environment)
[Of course there's nothing to say it didnt change _since_ then, as I
gather something hideous happened to the original PS *G in Hebrew from PAA
*G and *G_w...]
*Muke!
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