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Re: CHAT: Phonemic status of English interdentals

From:Tristan <kesuari@...>
Date:Tuesday, October 8, 2002, 7:06
I'm a firm believer in the non-distinction of [T] and [D] in English. It
took me *aages* to work out what the difference was at first. Much
easier to tell the difference between [&] and [&:] (which only have one
debatable minimal pair---can and can) or [8u] and [Ou] (which has no
minimal pairs).

Minimal pairs do not a phoneme make. Nor does a lack thereof make not.
(And... what is the origin of the constructions 'X do/es not a Y make'?)

Tristan

Josh Brandt-Young wrote:

>Peshik, > >I was thinking about our discussion some time ago of whether [T] and [D] >should be considered separate phonemes in English, citing "minimal pairs" >and whatnot, and decided to do a test on my (non-linguistically-savvy) >girlfriend to see what I could see. > >I read the following text, changing all occurrences of [T] to [D]: > >It was a balmy summer night. The fat man and the thin man were taking a walk >through the park, when they suddenly became aware that a large moth was >fluttering around them. The fat man stumbled off the path, shouting "I think >that thing just bit me!" The thin man furrowed his brow, and replied, "I >doubt it--moths have no teeth." > >I read it very quickly the first time, and as she noticed nothing >remarkable, I read it again more slowly with fairly strong enunciation on >the interdentals--still nothing. Even when I read the test words >*individually* she had no idea what I was looking for. > >This seems to prove (at least in her dialect) that they're not separately >phonemic--what do you think? > > >Ána vien, > Josh > >---------- >Josh Brandt-Young <vionau@...> >"After the tempest I behold, once more, the weasel." >(Mispronunciation of Ancient Greek) > > >

Replies

John Cowan <jcowan@...>X does not a Y make (was: Phonemic status of English interdentals)
Joe <joe@...>
Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...>