Re: THEORY nouns and cases (was: Verbs derived from noun cases)

On 28 Apr 2004 Joe <joe@...> wrote:

> Ans also in the Celtic languages, I believe.  Though they call it a
> 'noun-verb'.  It represents the infinitive, or something.
  Hungarian has another "noun-verb" borderline cathegory, called
verbal nouns, that is much more known in another languages. But
it's a derived cathegory (formant: -a's/e's, archaic -at/et). The
Celtic noun-verb is "counterpart" of these verbal nouns and not the
nomenverba. As Danny Wier wrote this can be mapped (most of all) to
the English gerund. It expresses the process of an action.

  But nomenverba unite the action and the experiencer (or patient),
e.g. _e'g_ 'to burn' vs. 'sky' (as an old reflection of the wide-
spead religious base of the Promethean myth), _fagy_ 'to freeze'
vs. 'frost'.

  However, we can find striking paralellism between this old Finno-
Ugric peculiarity and the new English developments, like "[a] za'r"
'[the] lock' vs. "za'r[ni]" '[to] lock', (archaic) "[az] es" '[the]
rain" vs. "es[ni]" '[to] rain' etc. (Does the English go where
Hungarian comes from?)