Re: A sound change question...
From: | Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...> |
Date: | Thursday, August 7, 2003, 4:24 |
Quoting Garth Wallace <gwalla@...>:
> Muke Tever wrote:
> > From: "Peter Bleackley" <Peter.Bleackley@...>
> >
> >>Staving E. Notagain:
> >>
> >>[kw] -> [p]
> >
> > If we're throwing in clusters, dont forget [tw] > [s] and [kw] > [t], both
> > from Greek.
>
> Those three seem strange. How are they explained?
The first, [kw]/[k_w] > [p], is not so strange, and is well-attested.
It occurs simply by fusing some of the features of the two elements/
segments into one segment: the feature [-continuant] (i.e., stopness)
and [-voice] from the [k] and the feature [labial] from the [w].
The other two are more strange, but not unbelievable. I don't know
the particular history of the changes he's mentioning, but [tw] > [s]
might be from two distinct that happened changes in Greek: [w] > null,
and [t] > [s] / _i. I'm not sure about [kw] > [t] -- does Peter have
a citation for that?
=========================================================================
Thomas Wier "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally,
Dept. of Linguistics because our secret police don't get it right
University of Chicago half the time." -- octogenarian Sheikh Zayed of
1010 E. 59th Street Abu Dhabi, to a French reporter.
Chicago, IL 60637
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