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Re: A sound change question...

From:Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>
Date:Thursday, August 7, 2003, 2:25
On Wed, 6 Aug 2003 20:55:01 -0400 John Cowan <cowan@...>
writes:
> Steg Belsky scripsit: > > /w/ to /gw/ (some spanish dialects, Germanic borrowings into > > Romance)
> I don't think this is so much a sound change as a rule for > borrowing. > Spanish didn't have initial /w/, so it used /gw/ to represent > foreign > [w]. Similarly, when English borrows a word with [x], it > represents > the [x] with /k/, but that does not mean there is or was a sound > change > from /x/ to /k/ (more like /f/, zero, or zero with compensatory > lengthening.
- Well, when it comes to finding it in Spanish dialects, i was thinking of the pronunciation of "huevo" as "güevo". -Stephen (Steg) "renew our days like the ancient times..."

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Muke Tever <muke@...>