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Re: A sound change question...

From:Joe <joe@...>
Date:Thursday, August 7, 2003, 15:00
----- Original Message -----
From: "Steg Belsky" <draqonfayir@...>
To: <CONLANG@...>
Sent: Thursday, August 07, 2003 3:46 PM
Subject: Re: A sound change question...


> On Thu, 7 Aug 2003 09:11:47 +0100 Joe <joe@...> writes: > > > I don't think this is so much a sound change as a rule for > > borrowing. > > > Spanish didn't have initial /w/, so it used /gw/ to represent > > foreign > > > [w]. Similarly, when English borrows a word with [x], it > > represents > > > the [x] with /k/, but that does not mean there is or was a sound > > change > > > from /x/ to /k/ (more like /f/, zero, or zero with compensatory > > > lengthening. > > > The only English borrowed with [x] is 'loch'. And it keeps the > > [x]. > - > > chutzpah?
Not a word I'm familiar with, I'm afraid.
> > -Stephen (Steg) > "mozotros no favlamos 'spanyol." ~ mueva sefarad >

Reply

John Cowan <jcowan@...>