Re: A sound change question...

----- Original Message -----
From: "Steg Belsky" <draqonfayir@...>
To: <CONLANG@...>
Sent: Thursday, August 07, 2003 3:46 PM
Subject: Re: A sound change question...


> On Thu, 7 Aug 2003 09:11:47 +0100 Joe <joe@...> writes:
> > > I don't think this is so much a sound change as a rule for
> > borrowing.
> > > Spanish didn't have initial /w/, so it used /gw/ to represent
> > foreign
> > > [w].  Similarly, when English borrows a word with [x], it
> > represents
> > > the [x] with /k/, but that does not mean there is or was a sound
> > change
> > > from /x/ to /k/ (more like /f/, zero, or zero with compensatory
> > > lengthening.
>
> > The only English borrowed with [x] is 'loch'.  And it keeps the
> > [x].
> -
>
> chutzpah?
Not a word I'm familiar with, I'm afraid.

>
> -Stephen (Steg)
>  "mozotros no favlamos 'spanyol."  ~ mueva sefarad
>

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