On Thu, 7 Aug 2003 09:11:47 +0100 Joe <joe@...> writes:
> > I don't think this is so much a sound change as a rule for
> borrowing.
> > Spanish didn't have initial /w/, so it used /gw/ to represent
> foreign
> > [w]. Similarly, when English borrows a word with [x], it
> represents
> > the [x] with /k/, but that does not mean there is or was a sound
> change
> > from /x/ to /k/ (more like /f/, zero, or zero with compensatory
> > lengthening.
> The only English borrowed with [x] is 'loch'. And it keeps the
> [x].
-
chutzpah?
-Stephen (Steg)
"mozotros no favlamos 'spanyol." ~ mueva sefarad