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Re: Genitive apposition

From:Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>
Date:Sunday, February 15, 2004, 13:10
Quoting Racsko Tamas <tracsko@...>:

> On Sat, 14 Feb 2004 <"Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...>> wrote: > > > How widespread is this feature? English has it (e.g. "the land of > Shin'ar", > > another excerpt from the handy-dandy Babel text). Does Cl. Latin use the > > genitive this way (the Vulgate version of the verse in the Babel text > > doesn't)? The Romance languages? Other Germanic languages? Other I-E? > > Non I-E? > > Hungarian has it but it's limited mainly to biblical and poetic context. > In Slovak it's not used.
Swedish does it occasionally, perhaps most commonly in the fixed expression _hela Sveriges land_ "whole Sweden's land"="the whole of Sweden". Also in biblical contexts - _Egyptens land_, _Kanaans land_. Feels formal/archaic to me. The piece from the Babel text is in the new official translation: När människorna flyttade österut fann de en dal i Shinar där de bosatte sig. lit: When the-humans moved eastwards found they a valley in Shinar where they settled themselves. Thus, no 'land' at all. Can't be bothered to excavate the old version right now. Andreas


Douglas Koller, Latin & French <latinfrench@...>Genitive apposition (and Swedish questions)