Re: Genitive apposition
From: | Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> |
Date: | Sunday, February 15, 2004, 13:10 |
Quoting Racsko Tamas <tracsko@...>:
> On Sat, 14 Feb 2004 <"Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...>> wrote:
>
> > How widespread is this feature? English has it (e.g. "the land of
> Shin'ar",
> > another excerpt from the handy-dandy Babel text). Does Cl. Latin use the
> > genitive this way (the Vulgate version of the verse in the Babel text
> > doesn't)? The Romance languages? Other Germanic languages? Other I-E?
> > Non I-E?
>
> Hungarian has it but it's limited mainly to biblical and poetic context.
> In Slovak it's not used.
Swedish does it occasionally, perhaps most commonly in the fixed expression
_hela Sveriges land_ "whole Sweden's land"="the whole of Sweden". Also in
biblical contexts - _Egyptens land_, _Kanaans land_. Feels formal/archaic to
me.
The piece from the Babel text is in the new official translation:
När människorna flyttade österut fann de en dal i Shinar där de bosatte sig.
lit: When the-humans moved eastwards found they a valley in Shinar where they
settled themselves.
Thus, no 'land' at all. Can't be bothered to excavate the old version right
now.
Andreas
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