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Re: Celtic Consonant Mutation

From:Aidan Grey <grey@...>
Date:Friday, May 3, 2002, 17:33
   That's only partially right.

   Originally, a lot of sounds lenited intervocalically (t > th /T/ > th
/h/ in irish, m > f /v/ in Welsh, and so on). And since the feminine
article ended in a vowel, you got lenition on the noun, which came to be
grammatically conditioned.

   What mikes talks about does explain nasalization / eclipsis / u/ru though.

   Aidan


At 02:17 PM 5/3/2002 +0100, you wrote:
>The mutations in Celtic langs are due to the process of assimilation (one >sound changing to resemble a preceding one, in this case) earlier on in the >history of the languages. The process itself happens all the time in >everyday speech - if you say the phrase 'London Bridge is falling down" you >will find that you pronounced the final n in London as an m. Why? Because it >is followed by a bilabial sound; the alveolar nasal n becomes a bilabial >nasal m. It's just that in the Celtic langs this process occurs under >conditions which have now come to be defined grammatically. Some time in the >history of Cornish the article defining "female singular" must have ended >with a sound that caused certain following sounds to be affected. >Mike >----- Original Message ----- >From: "Joe" <joe@...> >To: <CONLANG@...> >Sent: Friday, May 03, 2002 10:08 PM >Subject: Celtic Consonant Mutation > > > > Can you guys help me? I'm wondering how Celtic Initial mutation happens, >as > > in Cornish: > > > > mam > > mother > > > > an vam > > the mother > > > > I'm just curious as to how the mechanism works, and under what > > conditions...maybe the Bretons on this list can help :-)