Re: Country Names -- Local Pronunciations
| From: | And Rosta <a.rosta@...> |
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| Date: | Wednesday, May 14, 2003, 10:04 |
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Herman:
> On Sun, 11 May 2003 07:53:00 +0100, Joe <joe@...> wrote:
>
> >Sorry, another comment - the UK is not [INl@n], it's always [D@ju:kEj], and
> >England is pronounced [INgl@nd] by pretty much everybody..
>
> It's possible there was a transcription error, but it's been so long that I
> have no idea who gave me that pronunciation. Does anyone remember? I'm
> pretty much assuming that what people sent to the list is an accurate
> reflection of their own pronunciation and usage, but I could easily have
> made mistakes converting various ASCII-IPA pronunciations to IPA
As for the final [n] versus [nd], pretty much everybody has [nd]
in citation form, which can reduce to [n] in connected speech.
As for [INgl] versus [INl], this is pretty much subject to idiolectal
variation among speakers who contrast [Ng] and [N] -- I for example
say [INl@n(d)] & am not unusual in this, though it is a minority
pronunciation. The phenomenon is not restricted to this word -- the
[g] deletes before sonorants in general, e.g. [laNwIdZ] v. [laNgwidZ]
-- I say the former & I guess Joe says the latter.
--And.
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