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Re: USAGE: Diversity and uniformity AND No rants! (USAGE: di"f"thong) -- responses to Andreas and Ray.

From:R A Brown <ray@...>
Date:Friday, June 2, 2006, 18:44
Benct Philip Jonsson wrote:
[Reply to Andreas snipped]

> R A Brown skrev:
[snip] [snip]
>> and not only in IT environments. One email in this thread listed other >> occasional spelling simplifications - one imagines some at least will >> catch. > > I'm all for that. What I mean is rather that a laxing of > spelling prescriptivism may speed that process.
English spelling is rather less prescriptiv [sic] than many other national spellings. It does come as a surprize to some people to discover the number of words where dictionaries do list alternate spellings. The process will continue, I have no dout], on its own 'self-laxing' way.
> (BTW I found just the other day that _gaol_ ultimately > derives from VL _caveola_ -- while it kind of explains > the traditional spelling as a failure to note the Central > French /ga/ > /dZa/ sound change in the spelling one wonders > why this word wasn't respelled when _jambe_ and _jardin_ were.)
The French now spell it as _geôle_. I suspect the older English _gaol_ inherited its spelling from a north French dialect where the hard-g was retained, but picked up the pronunciation from the more common /dZ/ dialects :)
>> 2. More noticeable in my lifetime has been a drift towards spelling >> pronunciations. When I was a youngster, 'porpoise' and 'tortoise' the >> final syllable was (always) /@s/; now one often hears it pronounced >> /ojz/. The 't' in 'often', which became silent in the Tudor period (as >> spellings like 'offen' show), is now more often than not pronounced. One >> finds it increasingly restored in 'moisten' and 'soften'. I have heard >> it restored in 'apostle' and 'epistle', and IME 'pestle' is now almost >> always pronounced /pEstl=/ and not the /pEsl=/ of my youth. This trend >> will surely continue. > > I must say I have more mixed feelings about spelling > pronunciations, or rather about people claiming that > the old, spontaneously evolved pronunciations are 'wrong'.
They don't do the latter IME. It's just that through universal education, spelling has affected pronunciation.
> I still happen to feel that speech should be primary to writing.
Yep - but in literate societies the printed word is bound to have an effect. This has probably been going on in literate societies for millennia. [snip]
>>> By the same token Americans ought to back down from spelling >>> _draft_ for both the words which Brits spell _draught_ but >>> pronounce differently. It's just that these spellings have >>> become traditional on either side of the pond, so some >>> people will figuratively fight to their death over them. >> >> Nope - 'draft' ought to gradually supplant 'draught' - see above. > > > Yes. I was under the false notion that /drOt/ existed as > an alternative pronunciation for the 'lack of water' sense.
Nope - that's _drought_ /dr&wt/, which we're experiencing in my neck of the woods, having had two exceptionally dry winters.
> I see now it is not so. >
>> >> ..and then reading was not universal. Only a minority were educated & >> could read. We are now in a world where we aim for 100% literacy. With >> an educated minority, such variation did not matter. But those who find >> difficulty in reading simply get confused by having such variation. > > > And they would *not* be confused by spellings like > _gaol_ and _draught_?
Pardon me - but in my previous email I specifically said that such people DO find _gaol_ confusing and read it as _goal_. But, as I also said, that spelling is no longer current on either side of the pond. We write _jail_. It was precisely the confusion that precipitated the change. But _draught_ is another matter. We are accustomed to _laughter_ so the _aught_ combo is not so troublesome. In fact, unlike _ough_, there are only two ways in which -augh- are pronounced in anyone's dialect. And the sign "draught-beer" or "beer on draught" is familiar enough :) Also, as I said in my previous mail, _draft_ is gradually gaining ground in the UK. In fact, in current British usage, both spellings occur with, theoretically, different meanings - but there is a grey area where in practice there is hesitation between the two spellings. [snip]
> Granted. What I advocate is not *random* variation, but > to allow a greater variation reflecting variation in > pronunciation.
Why? Does it really improve comprehension for my Merkan cousins to know that I say [grAs] and not [gr&s]? What's the point? At the moment we're all quite happy writing _grass_. Why introduce two different spellings for plants of the monocotyledonous family Graminaea, when all anglophones are AFAIK quite happy with the current common spelling? I fail to see this as a reform. [snip]
>> Nope - most of the YAEPT threads concern the way the different way that >> the *same* phoneme is pronounced in different parts of the anglophone >> world. A phonemic spelling of English simply would _not_ reflect these >> differences. > > I know, but you must agree that the present spelling doesn't > promote awareness of the fact that pronunciation differs.
But no _phonemic_ spelling will do that - see my remarks above. What you seem to be advocating is strictly _phonetic_ spelling. While I agree that a phonemic spelling would be a reform (tho for all sorts of reasons, I do not think it will happen for English), I do not see strictly _phonetic_ spelling as a reform. It would mean kids would have to spell differently from the grandparents in many cases. This seems to me a recipe for far greater confusion that we have in current English spelling. [snip]
> Yes, those who are aware of the differences may feel annoyment at > seing them discussed, but what annoys me is that those who engage > in those discussions seem annoyed or at least surprised by the fact > that these differences exist.
I'll leave that to those who like to engage in those discussions. [snip]
>> >> How so? Unless you set up a different set of phonemes for different >> varieties of English? > > I mean that I think some distinctions and some distribution > differences should be smoothed over by not reflecting them > in spelling, or by 'compromise spellings' rather than making > a phonetic transcription of one accent and suppose it can serve > everybody.
This seems, in part at least, to contradict what you seem to be saying above. But, as far as I am aware, no one has suggested making the transcription of one accent the norm to serve for everybody. If there were to be a reform of English spelling on a phonemic basis, one would need to establish the abstract English phonemic 'archetype', independent of regional or national variation.
>> Any spelling reform would, in fact, be imposing some one else's ideas on >> the rest of us. Personally, I think English spelling for historic >> reasons has moved far from the ideal of phonemic spelling - But for >> goodness sake can't we just let the 'natural' processes of very gradual >> reform and of pronunciation change continue to work? > > The problem is that Hell will freeze before there is any real > improvement by that 'natural' process!
The trouble is that most anglophones don't see it as a huge problem - specially now we've got spell-checkers :) [snip]
>> - we would better applying our creative talents to conlanging (Er - >> isn't that what the list is supposed to be about?) > > > Well, isn't devising con-orthographies a form of conlanging?
Marginally - but spelling English or Swedish in Arabic characters, or Tengwar or whatever might be fun, but it's hardly as creative, surely, as devizing something like Quenya, Klingon, Brihenig etc,. etc. [snip]
> > The problem is that spelling prescriptiveness is used as tool of > social oppression, and this is possible mostly because spelling > is so much divorced from pronunciation.
Eh? IME kids from privileged backgrounds find our spelling just as troublesome as kids from deprived backgrounds - and I've found in all social classes kids who pick up spelling quite easily.
> The phonemic principle > of spelling serves as a check on prescriptivists insisting on > arbitrary spelling regulations as a form of shibboleth.
On the contrary, it gives prescriptivists an excellent tool to insist on "correct" pronunciation. Our present system does not give them such a tool - as the many YAEPTs so clearly show :)
> Clearly > it also makes it easier for kids to learn to spell and for > L2 learners to learn to speak.
True. But kids are resilient - even Japanese kids seem to cope with their horrendous mix of scripts. And isn't literacy high in Japan? [snip]
>> Yes, obviously how one writes one's own language privately is their own >> concern. George Bernard Shaw always wrote his English in full Pitman >> shorthand. But if we want to communicate readily with others that use >> our language it is useful to do so in a more or less commonly agreed >> way. GBS had the luxury of having a secretary to transcribe his Pitman >> into traditional English spelling. Most of us don't. > > > The problem with shorthand is of course that it is not easy to > reproduce mechanically, not that it is phonemic.
Some shorthands are certainly phonemic - and surely the difficulties are no greater than they are in reproducing Arabic script mechanically. [snip] -- Ray ================================== ray@carolandray.plus.com http://www.carolandray.plus.com ================================== "A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language." J.G. Hamann, 1760

Replies

Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>