Re: OT: Phonetics (IPA)
From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
Date: | Monday, July 14, 2003, 19:15 |
Going back to my IPA questions that cropped up from my investigation
of Vietnamese:
It seems that [c] is similar to [tj], the main difference being that the
tongue doesn't move; it's is in the [j] position throughout. Is that
correct?
And "preglottalization" of a stop refers to the insertion of a [?]
berfore it? (English "stop" /stOp/ is sometimes realized as [stO?p_}],
so I guess that would count. Hm. Does an unreleased stop after a ?
really add anything to the pronunciation? Could that be equivalently
written as just [stO?]?)
Also, I infer that the reason we regard <ch> = [tS] as a single sound, but
not <x> = [ks], is because the different places of articulation of [k] and
[s] prevent a thorough merger of those two sounds into a true affricate.
Right?
Any answers appreciated. Just trying to get the terminology down. :)
-Mark
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