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Re: OT: Phonetics (IPA)

From:Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
Date:Monday, July 14, 2003, 19:15
Going back to my IPA questions that cropped up from my investigation
of Vietnamese:

It seems that [c] is similar to [tj], the main difference being that the
tongue doesn't move; it's is in the [j] position throughout.  Is that
correct?

And "preglottalization" of a stop refers to the insertion of a [?]
berfore it?  (English "stop" /stOp/ is sometimes realized as [stO?p_}],
so I guess that would count.  Hm.  Does an unreleased stop after a ?
really add anything to the pronunciation?  Could that be equivalently
written as just [stO?]?)

Also, I infer that the reason we regard <ch> = [tS] as a single sound, but
not <x> = [ks], is because the different places of articulation of [k] and
[s] prevent a thorough merger of those two sounds into a true affricate.
Right?

Any answers appreciated.  Just trying to get the terminology down. :)

-Mark

Replies

Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>
JS Bangs <jaspax@...>
Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>