Re: THEORY: more questions
| From: | Tim May <butsuri@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Tuesday, November 25, 2003, 20:01 |
|---|
Paul Bennett wrote at 2003-11-25 14:47:14 (-0500)
> On Tue, 25 Nov 2003 19:49:02 +0100, Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>
> wrote:
>
> > Quoting Paul Bennett <paul-bennett@...>:
> >
> >> > b.. oblique (as an aspect or mood or so)
> >>
> >> From Larry Trask's excellent Dictionary Of Grammatical Terms In
> >> Linguistics
> >> (ISBN 0415086280):
> >>
> >> Denoting an argument [noun] which is neither a subject nor a direct
> >> object.
> >> Oblique [noun]s in English are realized as objects of prepositions; in
> >> some
> >> other languages, they may be objects of postpositions or case-marked
> >> [noun]s.
> >
> > That seems to leave English's indirect objects rather hanging in the
> > blue?*
>
> I don't understand. I can't think of a single indirect object in English
> that isn't marked by a preposition, except for possibly ill-formed
> utterances like
>
> ?give it me
>
> for
>
> give it to me
>
> I don't know. I don't claim for one minute to be an expert in English
> syntax. Maybe I'm merely failing to understand some aspect of your
> statement that is at a more abstract technical level than I'm used to
> encountering.
>
>
>
>
"Give me the book". Or rather, "he gave me the book", as it's
probably best to use a declarative example.
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