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Advice required: phonologic or phonetic?

From:Francois Herrscher <fchauvet@...>
Date:Tuesday, July 6, 2004, 20:11
I asked something similar some months ago, but did not get any
satisfactory feedback.
How would you call a (part of) consonant (e.g. /k/, phonemic) which is
still considered the same consonant when it becomes /g/ (allophone) and
the /k/--/g/ opposition has grammatical meaning? Knowing, of course, that
the native script uses the same symbol for both?
(This last point is very important: due to intensive use of infixes, the
very fact that [k]aned [g] are considered the "same" consonant is the only
way to distinguish, e.g., /LOT/ from /LOK/, while phonetically they may
become [luG] or [lowD] respectively)
It is just a matter of technical vocabulary and notation, I think. But, I
would like to avoid any misunderstanding.

Thank you.


And Rosta <a.rosta@...>