Re: Grammatical tones

John Cowan writes:
 > Christopher Wright scripsit:
 >
 > > How plausible is it for tones to have a grammatical rather than lexical
 > > meaning? For instance, where many languages have articles, this one would
 > > have different tones instead. Or perhaps verb number or tense would be
 > > indicated thus.
 >
 > I asked this very question on Linguist List ten years ago (wow!), thus:
 >
 > http://www.linguistlist.org/issues/3/3-341.html#1
 >
 > And here's my summary of replies:
 >
 > http://www.linguistlist.org/issues/3/3-374.html#2
 >

Is anyone archiving this kind of thing in preparation for the
long-awaited second integration of the conlang FAQ?  It seems in
keeping with the contents of (what has been archived of) the old site.

http://web.archive.org/web/20010804085227/personalweb.sierra.net/~spynx/FAQ/

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