Re: Grammatical tones
| From: | John Cowan <jcowan@...> | 
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| Date: | Friday, August 23, 2002, 20:13 | 
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Christopher Wright scripsit:
> How plausible is it for tones to have a grammatical rather than lexical
> meaning? For instance, where many languages have articles, this one would
> have different tones instead. Or perhaps verb number or tense would be
> indicated thus.
I asked this very question on Linguist List ten years ago (wow!), thus:
http://www.linguistlist.org/issues/3/3-341.html#1
And here's my summary of replies:
http://www.linguistlist.org/issues/3/3-374.html#2
Not mentioned there is that my made-up examples in the query use the
Gua\spi tonal grammar, though with English lexis.  Gua\spi is an offshoot
of Loglan: see http://www.math.ucla.edu/~jimc/guaspi/
--
John Cowan                              <jcowan@...>
http://www.reutershealth.com            http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
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