Re: proto-romance questions
| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
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| Date: | Thursday, December 16, 1999, 1:41 |
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Eric Christopherson wrote:
> Hmm, is that possibly how Latin *cambiare yielded English <change>? I've
> always wondered how the -mb- could become -ng- but have never seen it
> explained. I supposed it could have gone: *cambiare>*camiar>SandZer>Fr.
> <changer> (or is it <ier>?)
Well, Old French _changier_ would've been pronounced something like
/tSandZ-/, not sure of the ending. But I know that the {ch} was /tS/
and {j/g(e,i)} was /dZ/.
--
"Old linguists never die - they just come to voiceless stops." -
anonymous
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