The "owned" noun case is called...?

        Hello folks.
        In the conlang I'm (slowly) working on, ownership is marked
differently for alienable and inalienable possessions.
        For inalienable possessions, mostly body parts and relatives, there
is a genitive marker on the end of the "owner" noun.
        For alienable possession, there is an "owned" marker on the end of
the "owned" noun. This marker also shows tense, so the item can be "owned
before", "now mine", and "will be mine".
        There is also a word order difference; owned objects always
immediately follow the owner.

        Anyway, these two suffixes can be mixed. For alienable possessions,
the genitive marker on the owner indicates emphasis, such as, "this is MY
basket, NOT YOURS." It can also be used by the speaker to make it clear that
the item will *not* be given up, traded, or sold. It also has a slightly
aggressive feel, and so is rarely used.
        Using the alienable suffix on family members indicates great
hostility, they *were* your family, but you don't acknowledge them now, or
you may not in the future.

        Now, the question:
        What is the technical term for the "owned" case?
        I've been slowly reading "The Cambridge Language Survey of Native
North America" (oh-so-much linguistic trivia!). It mentioned the obviate
case, which I've heard used in this context. According to the book, the
obviate is a way to indicate that the noun is non-topical versus topical,
and many languages with obviate marking use it on possessed items. However,
it has other functions.
        Is there a more precise term than "obviate"?

        Thanks!
                Mike

______________________________________
Mike Karapcik   *       Tampa, FL
Network Analyst *       USF campus
H. Lee Moffitt Cancer Research Center
ConlangCode: v1.1 CIT !h+ !u cG:M:R:S:G a+ y n30:3
B+++/R:Wic A+ E+ N1 Is/d K ia-:+ p-- s- m o P S----

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