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/N/ vs /Ng/ (was: Re: English notation)

From:Muke Tever <alrivera@...>
Date:Thursday, June 28, 2001, 22:07
From: "David Peterson" <DigitalScream@...>
> In a message dated 6/28/01 9:43:36 AM, nsampat@IX.NETCOM.COM writes: > << This makes me wonder: Is there a need for a distinction between /N/ and > /Ng/? It seems to me that that's a difference in rendering as opposed to > phonemics. >> > > I think there is. I say /fiNgr=/, but never /fiNr=/. And I say
> but never /riNg/. Yet, they're not in complimentary distribution, for I
> /lONr=/, never /lONgr=/.
I read somewhere (either this list or a different one) that the general rule for /N/ vs. /Ng/ is that the /g/ drops morpheme-finally but not morpheme-medially (hence /&Ngr=/ 'anger' but /h&Nr=/ 'hang-er'). But for some reason this doesn't generally apply before -er of comparison while it does for -er of agency: you may have /lONr=/ but I have /lANgr=/ "longer: more long", while "longer: one who longs" would be /lANr=/. This doesn't seem to be an unbreakable rule, though, as there's (for me, anyway) /N/ in monomorphemic "hangar" and "dinghy". *Muke!