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Re: Noun Cases

From:Michael Martin <mdmartin@...>
Date:Sunday, February 29, 2004, 3:38
Yes, that makes sense. It was the stem I was thinking of. I was
wondering what form would be used when the word is not in a sentence,
like in a dictionary, or when it is a single word response to a
question. Like, "What did this? The dog." I suppose "dog" would be in
the Nominative case for a language that used Nominative?

I suppose one could have a language where the stem alone is the
Nominative case, and then any other case adds an ending to that.

---------------------------------------------------
Michael David Martin, Master Mason
S. W. Hackett Lodge #574
Free & Accepted Masons of California


On Feb 28, 2004, at 7:18 PM, David Peterson wrote:

> Michael wrote: > > <<In languages that use noun cases is there such a thing as a caseless, > "infinitive" form of the noun? Or are the nouns always in a case?>> > > To say that a noun was caseless would indicate that the noun performs > no role in the sentence. So, yes, nouns always do have a case. The > dictionary form will depend on the language. The "base" form is > generally the nominative in nominative/accusative languages and the > absolutive in ergative/absolutive languages. Now, if you consider a > language like Latin, your idea of an "infinitive" form might be > represented best as the stem in a Latin noun. So, for example, in the > word "domus" (house?), the stem would be "dom-". You can't ever use > the stem in a sentence (though one can imagine being able to use it > form compounds, if you had a language like this), but it's to this > stem that all the case-endings (including the nominative) get added. > Additionally, if you had a noun that could change genders, the thing > that would remain constant would be the stem. > > -David >