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Re: The Lumanesian is BACK!!!

From:Mathias M. Lassailly <lassailly@...>
Date:Thursday, November 12, 1998, 20:19
Kristian wrote :

 The language is also definitely tonal and I have discovered that the
> Lumanesian languages were once none-tonal. > > I have constructed the outlines of how tone has developed from a none > tonal language. Briefly, tonal distinctions developed when the > contrast between two varying glottal strictures among consonants > disappeared. It is not clear what these glottal strictures were but > they were probably a contrast between either voiceless vs. voiced, or > modal voiced vs. creaky (glottalized) voiced - (or an allophonic > combination of both). >
I'm sure you more learned than I am in this respect but just in case I thought, well, maybe you could procure the explanations of how Chinese itself became tonal. I read all that 10s of years ago (;-) and I can't find this book out from my shelves but it's FASCINATING. Mathias ----- See the original message at http://www.egroups.com/list/conlang/?start=18280