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Re: "Coming out" about conlanging to people in Academia [was Re:Caryatic]

From:Thomas R. Wier <artabanos@...>
Date:Saturday, July 21, 2001, 10:03
David Peterson wrote:

> That was the time when I noticed, of all odd things (and > I swear to you, this is true), he pronounced the word "okay" as [N=.'q_he] > (in case I'm getting the IPA wrong, that's a syllabic uvular nasal, a > voiceless, aspirated uvular plosive and a close-mid, tense, unrounded front > vowel). He's a native speaker of English, and both of his parents are, as > well, and there parents before them, and so on. He's never had exposure to > uvular plosives, to my knowledge. It's so weird!
The question seems to be: is this a regular feature of his speech when he uses the word "okay", or is this something that happened just once? I wouldn't be too surprised to hear someone once in a while articulate a uvular stop when the norm for their idiolect and surrounding dialect is velar. Of course, the syllabic nasal in the beginning syllable is commonplace. =================================== Thomas Wier | AIM: trwier "Aspidi men Saiôn tis agalletai, hên para thamnôi entos amômêton kallipon ouk ethelôn; autos d' exephugon thanatou telos: aspis ekeinê erretô; exautês ktêsomai ou kakiô" - Arkhilokhos