Re: OT: NATLANG: Romanian orthography question
From: | John Cowan <cowan@...> |
Date: | Monday, November 24, 2003, 18:34 |
Mark J. Reed scripsit:
> So I assume there is an etymological distinction between <â> and <î>, and that
> at one time they represented two distinct sounds?
I believe the story is that the original romanization of Romanian,
after they stopped using Cyrillic, used a-circumflex. I-circumflex was
introduced after WW II and then removed again after 1989. The Cyrillic
representation of course used yeru. This may be oversimplified.
However, the words related to "Roman" (the name of the country and the
language, particularly) have always been written with a-circumflex.
--
John Cowan <jcowan@...>
http://www.reutershealth.com http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
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