Re: Hebrew Glottal Stop
From: | Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, June 30, 2004, 12:41 |
On Jun 28, 2004, at 11:37 AM, Outo Otus wrote:
> Hi, I posted a message a little while about the Hebrew glottal stop,
> but I
> would like to know more. When exactly is the glottal stop realized in
> modern Hebrew? I believe it isn't pronounced / realized at the start of
> words, as it is only used as a placeholder for vowels, and there is no
> distinction between word beginning and not beginning with it. In what
> environments should it be pronounced, if it is at all? Also, when is
> ayin
> realized a glottal stop? Or is this simply ignored (Ashkenazic
> pronunciation only). Thanks for all you help!
Rrrrm... not sure, but i suspect that /?/ is only pronounced in Modern
Israeli Hebrew when stressed and purposefully enunciated.
This might also apply to non-alefs, like people who pronounce initial
/ji/ as /(?)i/, maybe |patahh ganuv| before final
pharyngeals/laryngeals also? As in the name /noaH/ (/H/=|hhet|
voiceless pharyngeal fricative), although i would pronounce it /nowaH/
in 'slow careful enunciation mode', i can see an israeli pronounce it
as /no?aH/.
Similarly, i think |`ayin| might be realized as /?/ under 'slow careful
enunciation' stress by people who can't pronounce it 'properly', i.e.
/3/.
But hopefully Dan will jump in with some anecdotes from his much longer
relationship with Modern Israeli Hebrew than mine.
-Stephen (Steg)
"how many people wanna kick some ass?...
i would if i could
but i'm really just a sensitive artist
perpetratin' like i am the hardest
acting like i'm not the smartest
i'm really just a sensitive artist"
~ 'kick some ass' by stroke 9