Re: Hebrew Glottal Stop
|From:||Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>|
|Date:||Wednesday, June 30, 2004, 12:41|
On Jun 28, 2004, at 11:37 AM, Outo Otus wrote:
> Hi, I posted a message a little while about the Hebrew glottal stop,
> but I
> would like to know more. When exactly is the glottal stop realized in
> modern Hebrew? I believe it isn't pronounced / realized at the start of
> words, as it is only used as a placeholder for vowels, and there is no
> distinction between word beginning and not beginning with it. In what
> environments should it be pronounced, if it is at all? Also, when is
> realized a glottal stop? Or is this simply ignored (Ashkenazic
> pronunciation only). Thanks for all you help!
Rrrrm... not sure, but i suspect that /?/ is only pronounced in Modern
Israeli Hebrew when stressed and purposefully enunciated.
This might also apply to non-alefs, like people who pronounce initial
/ji/ as /(?)i/, maybe |patahh ganuv| before final
pharyngeals/laryngeals also? As in the name /noaH/ (/H/=|hhet|
voiceless pharyngeal fricative), although i would pronounce it /nowaH/
in 'slow careful enunciation mode', i can see an israeli pronounce it
Similarly, i think |`ayin| might be realized as /?/ under 'slow careful
enunciation' stress by people who can't pronounce it 'properly', i.e.
But hopefully Dan will jump in with some anecdotes from his much longer
relationship with Modern Israeli Hebrew than mine.
"how many people wanna kick some ass?...
i would if i could
but i'm really just a sensitive artist
perpetratin' like i am the hardest
acting like i'm not the smartest
i'm really just a sensitive artist"
~ 'kick some ass' by stroke 9