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Re: Hebrew Glottal Stop

From:Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>
Date:Wednesday, June 30, 2004, 12:41
On Jun 28, 2004, at 11:37 AM, Outo Otus wrote:
> Hi, I posted a message a little while about the Hebrew glottal stop, > but I > would like to know more. When exactly is the glottal stop realized in > modern Hebrew? I believe it isn't pronounced / realized at the start of > words, as it is only used as a placeholder for vowels, and there is no > distinction between word beginning and not beginning with it. In what > environments should it be pronounced, if it is at all? Also, when is > ayin > realized a glottal stop? Or is this simply ignored (Ashkenazic > pronunciation only). Thanks for all you help!
Rrrrm... not sure, but i suspect that /?/ is only pronounced in Modern Israeli Hebrew when stressed and purposefully enunciated. This might also apply to non-alefs, like people who pronounce initial /ji/ as /(?)i/, maybe |patahh ganuv| before final pharyngeals/laryngeals also? As in the name /noaH/ (/H/=|hhet| voiceless pharyngeal fricative), although i would pronounce it /nowaH/ in 'slow careful enunciation mode', i can see an israeli pronounce it as /no?aH/. Similarly, i think |`ayin| might be realized as /?/ under 'slow careful enunciation' stress by people who can't pronounce it 'properly', i.e. /3/. But hopefully Dan will jump in with some anecdotes from his much longer relationship with Modern Israeli Hebrew than mine. -Stephen (Steg) "how many people wanna kick some ass?... i would if i could but i'm really just a sensitive artist perpetratin' like i am the hardest acting like i'm not the smartest i'm really just a sensitive artist" ~ 'kick some ass' by stroke 9