Re: Fricativization as it happens
|From:||Paul Kershaw <ptkershaw@...>|
|Date:||Tuesday, January 27, 2009, 15:27|
----- Original Message ----
> From: R A Brown ray@CAROLANDRAY.PLUS.COM
> Matthew Turnbull wrote:
> > where do we have /ph/? we have =/f/, but /ph/?
> haphazard, uphill
Plus, SAE (and most dialects of English, as far as I'm aware) has /p/ -> [pʰ] /
#_V, so even if those <h>s are dropped, they'll partially come back when the
words are resyllabified. I hear that happening with my pronunciation of
"uphill," for instance. Careful pronunciation of /ʌp'hɪl/ is
[əp$'hɪl], but in more rapid speech I drop the [h], which causes the /p/
to move to the second syllable, producing [ə$'pʰɪl]. But that's true even
when there's no underlying h. In rapid speech, "uphill" and "a pill" are
homophonous for me.
"Haphazard" is one of them there University of Chicago words, so it's not nearly as
subject to rapid speech slurring as "uphill" is. ;)
Then again, I thought Matthew was asking about the existence of /$ph/ or /ph$/, not
of /p$h/. I'm not aware of any /$ph/ or /ph$/ in English.