Re: Con-prescriptivism

FFlores wrote:
> I thought so. Indeed there could be an epenthetic -b- in
> some idiolects. But I'm perfectly capable of pronouncing
> /mr/ (and yes, "r" is a flap)
Well, I didn't say that it was impossible, but only that, IMO, it would
tend to have an epinthetic consonant.

> (For some reason this is not the case with
> /nr/, but in most words Drasele'q changes /nr/ to /nd/.)
Probably because both /n/ and /r/ are alveolar, thus it is difficult to
cause the tap AND denasalize at the same time.  Either you denasalize
first, creating a /d/, or you denasalize after, causing a nasalized /r~/
(yes, this is perfectly possible, many dialect of English have it in
words like "romantic", where the <nt> is actually /r~/)

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