Re: Unahoban language
From: | Roberto Suarez Soto <ask4it@...> |
Date: | Monday, September 16, 2002, 11:53 |
On Sep/12/2002, Roger Mills wrote:
> 2. Is "c" pronounced as [k]? and then...
> 3. The use of the apostrophe is confusing-- you say it is pronounced as "k",
> but it also serves to divide up accent groups, where I'd assume it isn't
> pronounced at all. Many would interpret it as a glottal stop.
Yes, I'm revising all this. I've thought to convert it just into
a ortography marker: to mark "sounding" of the previous consonant, or
something alike. Anyway, it's been devoided of any sound content :-)
> 4. Pronunciation of "lh"-- do you have in mind the Argentine/Andalucian [Z]
> (like French j) version, or perhaps the Welsh voiceless ([K] in XSAMPA I
> think)? Tolkien probably favored the latter.
Well, I'm yet not sure O:-) I think it could be more like /K\/
(alveolar lateral fricative, voiced) or maybe even /j\/ (or /j/). More
probably the former. At least, from what I've found out after examining
how I pronounce it :-) It's palatal for sure, and voiced too, so it
surely is /j\/ or /j/.
> No no no no! You're rebelling against your moderately-inflected Spanish
> heritage!! ;-) We North Americans, OTOH, absolutely dote on complicated
> inflections, since English has so few.....
"Moderately inflected"? :-m Any examples of a "heavily
inflected" language, natlang or conlang? :-)
--
Roberto Suarez Soto
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