Re: Question about supines, gerunds, and the like
From: | Trebor Jung <treborjung@...> |
Date: | Saturday, May 15, 2004, 22:00 |
Garth wrote:
"I've seen the word "supine" come up a few times lately. I know (I think)
that it's a type of verbal noun, but how is it different from a gerund?
Google is your friend (and mine); from the AHD: "A defective Latin verbal
noun of the fourth declension, having very limited syntax and only two
cases, an accusative in -tum or -sum and an ablative in -t or -s. The
accusative form is sometimes considered to be the fourth principal part of
the Latin verb."
"On that note, what's the difference between a participle and a gerundive?
Is there any?"
What's a gerundive?
Trebor.
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