Re: Evidence for Nostratic? (was Re: Proto-Uralic?)
From: | Muke Tever <muke@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, July 9, 2003, 19:55 |
From: "Joe" <joe@...>
> So, um, why were laryngeals introduced? Was it the inconsistencies in
> Ablaut, or what?
Actually, it was (AFAICT) to simplify the ablaut series...
Where beforehand you have the main series:
e / o / 0
And series with resonants:
ey / oy / i
ew / ow / u
er / or / r=
(etc.)
You also have "long vowel" series:
e: / o: / @
a: / o: / @
o: / o: / @
These look weird compared to all the others.
However if you propose that there are sounds there that we're just not seeing,
parallel to *y, *w, *r, etc., then you have:
e1 / o1 / 1=
e2 / o2 / 2=
e3 / o3 / 3=
...which are perfectly normal members of the series.
*Muke!
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