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Re: Evidence for Nostratic? (was Re: Proto-Uralic?)

From:Muke Tever <muke@...>
Date:Wednesday, July 9, 2003, 19:55
From: "Joe" <joe@...>
> So, um, why were laryngeals introduced? Was it the inconsistencies in > Ablaut, or what?
Actually, it was (AFAICT) to simplify the ablaut series... Where beforehand you have the main series: e / o / 0 And series with resonants: ey / oy / i ew / ow / u er / or / r= (etc.) You also have "long vowel" series: e: / o: / @ a: / o: / @ o: / o: / @ These look weird compared to all the others. However if you propose that there are sounds there that we're just not seeing, parallel to *y, *w, *r, etc., then you have: e1 / o1 / 1= e2 / o2 / 2= e3 / o3 / 3= ...which are perfectly normal members of the series. *Muke! -- http://frath.net/