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Re: Evidence for Nostratic? (was Re: Proto-Uralic?)

From:Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>
Date:Thursday, July 10, 2003, 17:01
Quoting Joe <joe@...>:

> ----- Original Message ----- > From: "Andreas Johansson" <andjo@...>
> > > Quoting Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>: > > > > > En réponse à John Cowan : > > > > > > > > > >It's not 100% clear that dent- originally meant "tooth". Its formal > > > >English equivalent "tine" (< ME "tind", as in JRRT's "Tindrock") means > > > >"sharp projection", as on a fork, and has no connection with eating. > > > > > > For what is worth, in French such a thing is called "dent", meaning > > > definitely "tooth", which for me is no different from talking about the > > > "foot" of a mountain. > > > > Swedish forks have _tänder_, which word normally means "teeth". > > I assume that's cognate with 'teeth', though. Remember English, Low German, > Dutch and Frisian all lost proto-Germanic *n before Fricatives. And I think > in Norwegian, Swedish and Danish there was a *þ>d shift.
Um, well, I'm not the historical linguist here. Initially, English /T/ corresponds to Swedish /t/, eg _ting_ "thing", whereas German _Ding_ indeed have a /d/ - might this be what your thinking of? But I don't know if that holds in other positions. The singular _tand_ looks so much like Latin _dent-_ that I've always assumed they're cognate. Andreas