Re: Lingua Frakas...TMA (tenses,mood & aspects)
|From:||Tom Wier <artabanos@...>|
|Date:||Monday, May 15, 2000, 20:15|
Nik Taylor wrote:
> Jonathan Chang wrote:
> > True. Not to mention the inclusive & exclusive plural 3rd person pronouns
> > found in several pidgins of that region!!!
> Hunh? How can third person have "inclusive" and "exclusive"?
Easy. The pivot of the speech act for first person inclusives/exclusives
is whether the second person (whether a group or as an individual) is
involved (by definition). Analogously, a third person inclusive/exclusive
distinction would pivot around a particular third person (group or individual),
as opposed to some other third person group. Thus, a 3p inclusive
pronoun would include one 3p with the other, while exclusive wouldn't.
This shows there is, in fact, little distinction between third person exclusive
pronoun and a third person obviative pronoun: they both distinguish speech-
actors based on prior action in the discourse, although a 3p exclusive may
make a stronger connection between the two than an obviative pronoun
would (an obviative could be newly introduced into the discourse, while
the 3p exclusive would, I think, need to be linked, somehow, to that discourse).
Tom Wier <artabanos@...>
"Cogito ergo sum, sed credo ergo ero."