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Re: Lingua Frakas...TMA (tenses,mood & aspects)

From:Tom Wier <artabanos@...>
Date:Monday, May 15, 2000, 20:15
Nik Taylor wrote:

> Jonathan Chang wrote: > > True. Not to mention the inclusive & exclusive plural 3rd person pronouns > > found in several pidgins of that region!!! > > Hunh? How can third person have "inclusive" and "exclusive"?
Easy. The pivot of the speech act for first person inclusives/exclusives is whether the second person (whether a group or as an individual) is involved (by definition). Analogously, a third person inclusive/exclusive distinction would pivot around a particular third person (group or individual), as opposed to some other third person group. Thus, a 3p inclusive pronoun would include one 3p with the other, while exclusive wouldn't. This shows there is, in fact, little distinction between third person exclusive pronoun and a third person obviative pronoun: they both distinguish speech- actors based on prior action in the discourse, although a 3p exclusive may make a stronger connection between the two than an obviative pronoun would (an obviative could be newly introduced into the discourse, while the 3p exclusive would, I think, need to be linked, somehow, to that discourse). =========================================== Tom Wier <artabanos@...> "Cogito ergo sum, sed credo ergo ero." ===========================================