From: | Mark P. Line <mark@...> |
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Date: | Wednesday, April 21, 2004, 23:24 |
Peter Bleackley said:> Suppose for each case of a noun, there is a verbal form, which turns > CASE-X > into BE-CASE-X. For example BE-NOM-X = "to be X", BE-GEN-X = "belong to > X". > How many cases would the noun need before verbs were no longer needed as a > separate part of speach?Approximately the same number of cases as there are verbs. Marking case in this way would be no different than incorporating a verb into the noun form. -- Mark