Re: Verbs derived from noun cases
From: | Ray Brown <ray.brown@...> |
Date: | Thursday, April 22, 2004, 5:07 |
On Wednesday, April 21, 2004, at 09:57 AM, Peter Bleackley wrote:
> Suppose for each case of a noun, there is a verbal form, which turns
> CASE-X
> into BE-CASE-X. For example BE-NOM-X = "to be X", BE-GEN-X = "belong to X"
> .
It's not clear what the accusative (direct object) and dative (indirect
object) would turn into. The meaning of 'to' in the sense of 'toward(s)'
requires the allative case.
> How many cases would the noun need before verbs were no longer needed as
> a
> separate part of speach?
The answer is either indefinite, for reasons Henrik explained, or zero.
Tom Breton managed to banish verbs from his AllNoun without any recourse
to noun cases.
Ray
===============================================
http://home.freeuk.com/ray.brown
ray.brown@freeuk.com (home)
raymond.brown@kingston-college.ac.uk (work)
===============================================
"A mind which thinks at its own expense will always
interfere with language." J.G. Hamann, 1760
Reply