Re: /W/ without /w/?
| From: | Adam F. <hypaholic@...> |
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| Date: | Friday, November 12, 2004, 13:37 |
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On Thu, 11 Nov 2004 14:39:31 EST, Dan Saunders <ObeyTheHamster@...>
wrote:
>I have a question about a recently started conlang: Is there any
universal I
>don't know about that prevents a language from having the unvoiced
>labial-velar approximant, /W/, without it's voiced counterpart, /w/?
or /m_0/ without
>/m/? I would like to add these features, but wish to know how 'realistic'
>they are. Thanks. Dan.
>
English (at least where I live) has the voiced bilabial approximant, and
historically English also had a voiceless bilabial approximant. Some
dialects still preserve this in words like 'white' and 'which'. So, I
think it is highly possible that a language could just have a voiceless
labial-velar approximant.
- Adam