Re: /W/ without /w/?
|From:||Adam F. <hypaholic@...>|
|Date:||Friday, November 12, 2004, 13:37|
On Thu, 11 Nov 2004 14:39:31 EST, Dan Saunders <ObeyTheHamster@...>
>I have a question about a recently started conlang: Is there anyuniversal I
>don't know about that prevents a language from having the unvoiced
>labial-velar approximant, /W/, without it's voiced counterpart, /w/?or /m_0/ without
>/m/? I would like to add these features, but wish to know how 'realistic'
>they are. Thanks. Dan.
English (at least where I live) has the voiced bilabial approximant, and
historically English also had a voiceless bilabial approximant. Some
dialects still preserve this in words like 'white' and 'which'. So, I
think it is highly possible that a language could just have a voiceless