Re: Natlag: Middle English impersonal verbs
|From:||Tristan Alexander McLeay <conlang@...>|
|Date:||Friday, March 10, 2006, 1:40|
On 10/03/06, Sally Caves <scaves@...> wrote:
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> [quoting Sally]
> I use nigh all the time, too. I think we ought to bring fustilarian back
> into English, if we could determine what Shakespeare meant by it.
? Someone who eats only/mostly fustiles, obviously.
> >> I wonder if behoves was an impersonal verb that just hung in there. It
> >> behoves me to write that letter of recommendation.
> > (Isn't that normally spelled "behooves"?)
> Yup, typo. Also influenced by the old spelling.
I was of the impression "behoove" is American and "behove" is British
(and presumably Australian)---although I can only remember seeing the
word in use by Americans. My memory can be short, though.