Re: OT: Latin (was Re: proving a conlang?)
| From: | Stone Gordonssen <stonegordonssen@...> |
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| Date: | Thursday, April 24, 2003, 1:41 |
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>>Not to me, but I suppose it could to someone who has studied neither. But
>>since he obviously knew neither language, why cop
>>a 'tude and tell the educated patron that he's wrong?
>
>Was it in Borders? That would explain everything.
Well, yes, it was. Is this common?
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