Re: A quick question
From: | JS Bangs <jaspax@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, May 1, 2002, 17:11 |
Christopher B Wright sikyal:
> A sound change affected final /k/. Now, one letter represents /k/ or,
> when final, /x/. Could the /x/ pronunciation be preserved regardless of
> inflections?
>
> For instance, arc- "bear" is pronounced /arx/, but would arca "bear
> (nom)" be /arxa/?
Let's get those orthographies right, people. You mean to say [arxa], I
assume--a *phonetic* value. The underlying *phonemic* value is /arka/ no
matter what.
So your question depends. Do you want it to be [arxa]? If so you just
rewrite your rule so that /k/ goes to [x] at the end of a morpheme. If
you want [arka], then make /k/ only go to [x] at the end of a word.
Jesse S. Bangs jaspax@u.washington.edu
"If you look at a thing nine hundred and ninety-nine times, you are
perfectly safe; if you look at it the thousandth time, you are in
frightful danger of seeing it for the first time."
--G.K. Chesterton