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Re: A quick question

From:JS Bangs <jaspax@...>
Date:Wednesday, May 1, 2002, 17:11
Christopher B Wright sikyal:

> A sound change affected final /k/. Now, one letter represents /k/ or, > when final, /x/. Could the /x/ pronunciation be preserved regardless of > inflections? > > For instance, arc- "bear" is pronounced /arx/, but would arca "bear > (nom)" be /arxa/?
Let's get those orthographies right, people. You mean to say [arxa], I assume--a *phonetic* value. The underlying *phonemic* value is /arka/ no matter what. So your question depends. Do you want it to be [arxa]? If so you just rewrite your rule so that /k/ goes to [x] at the end of a morpheme. If you want [arka], then make /k/ only go to [x] at the end of a word. Jesse S. Bangs jaspax@u.washington.edu "If you look at a thing nine hundred and ninety-nine times, you are perfectly safe; if you look at it the thousandth time, you are in frightful danger of seeing it for the first time." --G.K. Chesterton