Re: OT: Help reading Indic transliteration?
From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
Date: | Thursday, January 15, 2004, 21:31 |
On Thu, Jan 15, 2004 at 09:08:20PM +0100, Benct Philip Jonsson wrote:
> At 15:56 15.1.2004, Mark J. Reed wrote:
>
> >r r` or r\
>
> Actually [r`] is a retroflex flap, which is
> one allophone of Hindi /d`/. The /r/ is
> either a plain trill [r] or an approximant [r\].
>
> >á¹ (r . below) r`= or r\=
> >á¹ (r . below macron) r`:= or r\:=
>
> The syllabic r should actually have a ring
> rather than a dot below. Unfortunately even
> Unicode hasn't got this straight. An r with
> a dot below is the transliteration of that
> allophone of /d`/ I mentioned above.
That may be so in Hindi, but was it true in Sanskrit? The
names I'm trying to pronounce correctly are Sanskrit, not
Hindi.
Cool, although it doesn't provide a phonetic key. :)
-Mark
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