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Re: Can realism be retro-fitted?

From:Roger Mills <rfmilly@...>
Date:Friday, January 19, 2007, 18:43
BP Jonsson wrote:

> >> This makes a reconstructed protolanguage a rather special > >> thing, and different from the actual prehistoric > >> language(s) that once existed in that you can only > >> reconstruct the regularities and those parts of structure > >> which survive -- or leave a mark, the technical term is > >> "leave a reflex" or "be reflected" -- in the descendant > >> languages. Any irregularities and anything which analogy, > >> phonetic loss ('merger with zero'), syntactic and > >> morphotactic change [...] has done away with cannot be > >> reconstructed, so a protolanguage ( '*asterisk language' > >> ) is only a subset of the actual prehistoric language. > >
I'd say this is true only in limited cases-- (1) when trying to reconstruct the past of a single living language (without benefit of [much] earlier _written_ evidence)**; (2) when dealing with a very limited number of survivors (again, without earlier evidence). ------------------------- ** and that's not always a help-- "Old Malay" inscriptions from the 7th/8th cent. CE are all but equivalent to modern literary Malay (a few vocab. losses aside, and spelling oddities due to the Indic script they used) -------------------------- As language families split up and "degrade", subgroups are formed; the members of a subgroup may be quite uniform, but in comparison with members of other subgroups, we can see where developments diverged. It is true that if all subgroups show a given change, that change can only be attributed to two sources: a) independent/parallel development in every subgroup, or b) the change is inherited from the proto-language.
> I might add / revise that complete mergers, whether with > zero or something else, aren't recoverable. E.g. there is no > way to tell that Old Swedish had a /T/, since its allophones > have merged completely with /t/ or /d/, (in the dialects > also with zero, where it was intervocalic or word-final.)
True enough; but if Dialects A and B have a t::t correspondence, as well as a t::0/d corr., that merits at least an hypothesis that two earlier sounds were involved. And surely comparison of Old Swedish with [almost any?] other Germanic language will prove or disprove the hypothesis? That's why we call the method "historical-<I>comparative<I>" :-)))))