Re: Verbal noun, verbnoun, deverbal noun, gerund, infinitive

Eldin Raigmore wrote:
> Can anyone on this list settle the terminological disputes raised on the thread
> < http://www.spinnoff.com/zbb/viewtopic.php?t=25263 >
> ?
>
> Is there a difference between the terminology used by linguists writing in one
> language, or whose L1 is one language, versus those who write in another
> language, or whose L1 is another language?
As far as _deverbal noun_ and _verbal noun_ are concerned, there should
not be. IMO only carelessness in use.

A _deverbal noun_ is a *noun* derived "de verbo", i.e. from a verb, e.g.
realization <-- realize. Such as noun is a 100% noun with no verbal
functions.

A _verbal noun_, on the other hand, is any form of a verb which can
serve as the head of a noun phrase; _typically_ these are infinitives &
gerunds (but see below), e.g.

(a) Lisa's _failing_ her exams upset her parents.
Here _failing_ takes a direct object 'her exams' but the subject has a
possessive form "Lisa's", thus treating _failing_ as a noun.

(b) It is forbidden _to shoot_ pheasants out of season.
_to shoot_ is the complement of "it is forbidden" (and in a language
with adjectival agreement, 'forbidden' would agree with 'to shoot') but
"to shoot" has a direct object.

The terms 'infinitive' and 'gerund', however, are rather more language
specific - tho IMO this should not be so much a question of a speaker's
L1 as of the language one is speaking about. Although infinitives are
common, not all languages have them, nor do they behave exactly the same
in all languages.

The term 'gerund' is even more language specific. Originally it referred
to the neuter of the Latin gerundive, used as a noun. In English it is
used to denote the -ing form when used as a verbal noun (see example
above). IIRC I have seen the term used for a verbal adverb in the Slav
languages. IME, if one uses the term 'gerund' one does need to define
its meaning in the grammar of the language in question.

As for _verbnoun_, I have met this *only* with reference to the modern
Insular Celtic languages. I guess the term was coined because the verbal
noun (for that is what it is) does not quite like an English infinitive
nor an English gerund - i.e. to distinguish its function from the verbal
nouns of English. Whether this was, from a linguistic point of view, a
good thing to do or not, is another matter.

But IMO to use the term 'verbnoun' for a feature in some other language
other than the Insular Celtic languages one should show good reason.

> If you're through addressing the various terminological disagreements, you
> might also take a stab at answering the other questions raised.
Not a the moment, thanks  :)

--
Ray
==================================
http://www.carolandray.plus.com
==================================
Entia non sunt multiplicanda
praeter necessitudinem.

Reply