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Re: Verbal noun, verbnoun, deverbal noun, gerund, infinitive

From:Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>
Date:Thursday, October 25, 2007, 8:51
On 10/24/07, R A Brown <ray@...> wrote:
> The terms 'infinitive' and 'gerund', however, are rather more language > specific - tho IMO this should not be so much a question of a speaker's > L1 as of the language one is speaking about. Although infinitives are > common, not all languages have them, nor do they behave exactly the same > in all languages.
That reminds me of the time I learned that Modern Greek has infinitives. Turned out that (as you said) they behave differently from what I was expecting an infinitive to do (or from what those forms called "infinitives" in Ancient Greek did). (They're used to form the perfect, btw, where English - for example - would use a past participle. For example, "I have never eaten fish" = "Δεν έχω ποτέ φάει ψάρι", with φάει "eaten"(?) being the απαρέμφατο or infinitive of τρώω "eat". Morphologically, they look the same as the third person singular "aorist subjunctive" -- the form used, for example, after the future marker θα in perfective-aspect phrases --, though I'm told that it derives from the AG infinitive in -ειν.) Cheers, -- Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>