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Re: Re : Re: Artyom Kouzminykh: Answers & proposal

From:From Http://Members.Aol.Com/Lassailly/Tunuframe.Html <lassailly@...>
Date:Monday, August 23, 1999, 12:50
Dans un courrier dat=E9 du 23/08/99 12:02:42  , Christophe a =E9crit :

> Lars Henrik Mathiesen wrote: > > > > > Date: Mon, 23 Aug 1999 11:09:34 +0200 > > > From: Christophe Grandsire <grandsir@...> > > > > > I wonder if it is true. This makes perfect sense for > > > English, but it is something impossible for French for example: > > > "J'ai cuit de la viande" vs. "J'ai de la viande cuite". But maybe at > > > an earlier stage French had the adjective before the noun (and > > > before its article). > > > > Well, I cheated. The 'have'-construction did not arise in any of the > > modern European languages, but sometime back in Proto-Romance and > > Common Germanic times, or perhaps a bit later. (Neither family had > > strict word order or mandatory articles back then). It just happens to > > work in Modern English too. > > > > And it did used to have the participle agreeing with the object noun > > phrase in gender and number, unlike the periphrastic perfect with 'is' > > where it agreed with the subject. (Agreement getting lost as part of > > grammaticalization is expected --- but what may be interesting is that > > the 'have'-form generally lost it much earlier than the 'is'-form). > > > =20 > We still have it in French, but only when the object takes place=20 > before > the verb, when it's a personal object pronoun for example, or when it's > a relative pronoun. I think in older times agreement was more important > (I can't check it by now, but I will).
this french attributive form has disappeared : je suis mang=E9e =3D *je suis (une chose) mang=E9e je l'ai mang=E9e =3D *j'ai (une chose) mang=E9e (qui est elle) but we can't say anymore : *j'ai viande mang=E9e =3D *j'ai (une) viande mang=E9e but the "archaic" form is still possible : "j'ai viande mang=E9 et r=F4t d=E9gust=E9 puis endormi me suis" ;-) the problem is that the attributive function of "be" and "have" (viande mang=E9e) are mixed up with other functions like aspect (=EAtre endormi) and even tense (s'=EAtre endormi) ! or in other words, attributive "be" and "have" have turned into aspect, which in turn has turned into tense and now who can really say what is what ? english still has pairs like "sunk/sunken", "proved/proven" etc. that show the distinction.
> =20 > > Lars Mathiesen (U of Copenhagen CS Dep) <thorinn@...> (Humour NOT=20 > marked) > =20 > -- > Christophe Grandsire > =20 > Philips Research Laboratories -- Building WB 145 > Prof. Holstlaan 4 > 5656 AA Eindhoven > The Netherlands > =20 > Phone: +31-40-27-45006 > E-mail: grandsir@natlab.research.philips.com
mathias