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From:Chris Bates <christopher.bates@...>
Date:Monday, March 31, 2003, 13:43
Why does english not use any r sound after a vowel? I mean, r can only
occur if it is followed by another vowel, "or", "ar" "er" "ur" etc
normally represent long vowel sounds, and "ir" represents two vowel
sounds if i'm not confused. It just seems strange... and its slightly
irritating since I'm trying to learn spanish and I find myself utterly
incapable of pronouncing a spanish trilled r, or of using an english one
to replace it all the time (since spanish has rs occuring at the end of
words and when not followed by a vowel).


Adam Walker <carrajena@...>
Joe <joe@...>
michael poxon <m.poxon@...>
Joe Fatula <fatula3@...>
David Barrow <davidab@...>
BP Jonsson <bpj@...>