Re: Rs

Since non rhotics do pronounce intervocalic rs why don't you pretend words
with a final r are followed by an imaginary vowel but stop short of actually
pronouncing that vowel.

I'm a non rhotic English speaker and I also speak fluent Spanish. I can
pronounce my rs both non trilled (when speaking English) and trilled (when
speaking Spanish);  I actually find it easier to pronounce the final trilled
r in Spanish than to imitate the final non trilled r of rhotic English
accents

David Barrow

Chris Bates wrote:

> Why does english not use any r sound after a vowel? I mean, r can only
> occur if it is followed by another vowel, "or", "ar" "er" "ur" etc
> normally represent long vowel sounds, and "ir" represents two vowel
> sounds if i'm not confused. It just seems strange... and its slightly
> irritating since I'm trying to learn spanish and I find myself utterly
> incapable of pronouncing a spanish trilled r, or of using an english one
> to replace it all the time (since spanish has rs occuring at the end of
> words and when not followed by a vowel).