Re: `bin' or `ibn' Ladin?
| From: | Eric Christopherson <rakko@...> |
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| Date: | Saturday, November 3, 2001, 23:04 |
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On Fri, Nov 02, 2001 at 12:37:03PM -0500, Vasiliy Chernov wrote:
> On Fri, 2 Nov 2001 12:12:04 -0500, Vasiliy Chernov <bc_@...> wrote:
>
> >Besides, *in the end of a sentence*, the case endings -u(n)/a(n)/i(n) must
> >be dropped, so the isolated form is ?ibn for all three cases.
>
> Sorry, the isolated Acc. (indefinite) form is indeed ?ibna(:), thus
> different from Nom/Gen ?ibn.
>
> So, probably, romanizations *always* take Arabic names in Nom.; forms
> like Abdallah (instead of Abdullah) are perhaps a result of deeper
> analysis: Abd-al-'Lah, 'servant of God' (each component, including the
> article, transcribed as if isolated).
I've been wondering about alternations like Abdullah/Abdallah for a while
now (that is, the forms they take in non-Arabic languages alternate). I
still don't quite understand, however. I realize that the <u> in <Abdullah>
is from the <-u> of <`abdu>, the nominative form complete with case marker;
and that the <?a> of <?al-Lah-> drops after a vowel; but in modern usage,
case markers aren't often used, so I'm left wondering if people actually
pronounce the name as <`abdulLah>, or do they pronounce it like <`abdalLah>,
which is to say the same as the phrase <`abd al-Lah>?
Confused,
--
Eric Christopherson, a.k.a. Contrarian Conlanger Rakko ^_^