Re: Bilabial / labiodental distinction
|From:||Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>|
|Date:||Wednesday, June 12, 2002, 9:31|
En réponse à Christopher B Wright <faceloran@...>:
> IPA and X-SAMPA don't give any values for labiodental plosives.
> they (the l.d.p.'s) would seem to be pronounceable. Since they don't
> special values, should I conclude that they just don't sound different
> than their bilabial equivalents? Or is it that the sounds don't appear
AFAIK there's nothing impossible in them. It just happens that nearly no known
language uses them. As for marking them, why not using the IPA "retracted"
diacritic? (a minus under the letter) It is normally used only with vowels so
no ambiguity could arise. In X-SAMPA it is rendered as /_-/. So we could
have /p_-/ and /b_-/ as labiodental plosives.
> Would people be able to distinguish between these?
That's THE big question. But since it's a conlang, why not simply decide that
the people who will speak it happen to distinguish them easily? :))
Take your life as a movie: do not let anybody else play the leading role.