Ergativity Qustion

Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...>

<<<
"I dog him" (no change)
"I dogged him" (verb past tense suffix)
"The dog bit him" (used as noun)
So an attribute also occuring in non-verbal situations doesn't seem to
me to preclude it being used as a stative verb. Anyway, not being a
professional linguist my argument may be flawed.
>>>
I am not a professional linguist either and ff course, there is always the
possibility to infer an "invisible" zero-copula "to be" or "to work as"
and/or call the "visible" part of the predicate a "gerund". That's how
hebrew grammars usually explain the present tense. The i- prefix of the
ipang- instrumental voice also bothers me, since the prefix to make an
instrumental nomen agentis in pang-, not ipang- as far I know. Anyway, not
being a professional linguist and not knowing any closely related language
(like Ilocano or else) my argument may be flawed.

µ.