Re: Middle English question
| From: | Tom Wier <artabanos@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Thursday, July 29, 1999, 19:41 |
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Padraic Brown wrote:
> On Thu, 29 Jul 1999, Tom Wier wrote:
>
> >
> > > "[H]e axed after eggys: And the goode wyf answerde, that she coude =
not
> >
> > [he: aks@d &ft@r EgIz and D@ go:d@ wif answErd@ D&t Se: kUd@ nOt]
>
> Oughn't axed be [&ks@d]?
Well, not all dialects even today use /&/ there. This is an example of
one of those educated guesses I was talking about: I knew that OE had
the equivalent <acsian>, not <=E6csian> AFAIK. Thus, I guessed that
only later did another dialect's /&/ take over, or perhaps it was due to
spelling pronunciation.
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Tom Wier <artabanos@...>
AIM: Deuterotom ICQ: 4315704
<http://www.angelfire.com/tx/eclectorium/>
"Cogito ergo sum, sed credo ergo ero."
"Things just ain't the way they used to was."
- a man on the subway
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