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Re: Middle English question

From:Tom Wier <artabanos@...>
Date:Thursday, July 29, 1999, 21:33

> Also, one small point: "nother" was probably [no:Der] rather than > [no:Ter]. Voicing of intervocalic fricatives like "th" goes right > back to Old English, and if it was [D] in Old English and [D] in > Modern English, I don't see why it wouldn't have been [D] in Middle > English. (I'm less certain about "the" and "then". These had [T] > in Old English, and [D] in Modern English, but I'm not sure when the > switch-over happened.)
Well, remember also that even, during the Old English period, scribes made no functional difference between thorn <=FE> and eth <=F0>, which today normally have their Icelandic values (AFAIK) of the voiceless and voiced interdental fricatives respectively. So, it would be difficu= lt to tell based solely on the spelling what their Middle-English counterpar= ts should have been. =3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D= =3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D Tom Wier <artabanos@...> AIM: Deuterotom ICQ: 4315704 <> "Cogito ergo sum, sed credo ergo ero." "Things just ain't the way they used to was." - a man on the subway =3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D= =3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D