Re: Middle English question
|From:||Tom Wier <artabanos@...>|
|Date:||Thursday, July 29, 1999, 21:33|
JOEL MATTHEW PEARSON wrote:
> Also, one small point: "nother" was probably [no:Der] rather than
> [no:Ter]. Voicing of intervocalic fricatives like "th" goes right
> back to Old English, and if it was [D] in Old English and [D] in
> Modern English, I don't see why it wouldn't have been [D] in Middle
> English. (I'm less certain about "the" and "then". These had [T]
> in Old English, and [D] in Modern English, but I'm not sure when the
> switch-over happened.)
Well, remember also that even, during the Old English period, scribes
made no functional difference between thorn <=FE> and eth <=F0>, which
today normally have their Icelandic values (AFAIK) of the voiceless
and voiced interdental fricatives respectively. So, it would be difficu=
to tell based solely on the spelling what their Middle-English counterpar=
should have been.
Tom Wier <artabanos@...>
AIM: Deuterotom ICQ: 4315704
"Cogito ergo sum, sed credo ergo ero."
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