Re: Middle English question
|From:||Boudewijn Rempt <bsarempt@...>|
|Date:||Saturday, July 31, 1999, 5:23|
On Sat, 31 Jul 1999, BP Jonsson wrote:
> Acc. to my "Nederlaendsk Grammatik" _Boudewijn_ should be [bOud@VEin] with
> [V]=labiodental glide (script-v/upsilon). Is it antiquated, or what? To
> distinguish [V] and a fricative [v] seems nightmarish to me, since Swedish
> "v" is mostly [V]. My native dialect has a bilabial/labiovelar glide
> distinct from the labiodental one in some words (from historical /hv/ and
> /v/ before sonorants, for the curious), so that feels easy to me(!), but a
> labiodental fricative/glide distinction doesnt...
Whether it is a glide or a fricative is regional, as Dirk has pointed
out. But I've lived west, south and east, and I am terminally confused
as to which one I use myself regularly. A glide, mostly, I think. But
I'm not much of a phonetician.
Boudewijn Rempt | http://www.xs4all.nl/~bsarempt